Morality and law are not equivalent or coterminous for sure, but I'd hardly say they are orthogonal. Do you really think they are completely void of interdependency?
They're orthogonal in that both can vary independently of the other. Making an act legal or illegal does not alter the morality of the act, nor does the morality of an act in a given context change the legality of performing it.
To the extent that you can plot the morality vs. legality of acts on a cartesian plane it's nice to find most points near the diagonal, but that doesn't mean they aren't separate axes.
Doesn't the law tend to follow morality hysterically (ie with hysteresis). Also a weaker point might be that civil disobedience itself could be considered immoral [in some moralities].
